E Pariksha Ship Safety MEO class 4 online exam questions
21.Prior
to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that
A.the forced ventilating system is operating
B.the cargo pumps are secured
C.no monocarbon gases are present
D.the oily water separator is de-energized
22.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?
A.IOPP certificate
B.Oil Record Book
C.SOPEP
D.Safety Management Certificate.
23.When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A.metacentric differential
B.height of the baseline
C.height of the metacenter
D.righting arm
24.Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________
A.ISPS code
B.ISM code
C.Chapter V of Solas
D.None of the above
25.Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A.Sea anchor
B.Fishing tackle
C.Drinking water cans
D.Life Jacket
26.As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______ functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency. A.Seven
B.Four
C.Six
D.Three
27.Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A.COLREG 1972
B.SAR 1979
C.SOLAS 1974
D.SALVAGE 1989
28.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A.Oils and chemicals
B.Oils other than crude oils
C.Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D.Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
29.Which of the following statements is false?
A.A ship security plan is made by the CSO
B.A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C.A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
D.None of the above
30.In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are
A.thirsty
B.sick or injured
C.wet
D.awake
31.Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds?A.Exposure to excessive heat.
B.Mixing of different grades of foam.
C.Exposure to air.
D.None of the above.
32.In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A.Oxygen content above 8%
B.Low water level in deck seal
C.Low water level in the scrubber tower
D.High scrubber water level
33.The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is known as _____________________
A.Williamson stretcher
B.Neil Hobson stretcher
C.Neil Robertson stretcher
D.Stokes stretcher
34.As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A.150 tonnes deadweight
B.150 gross tonnage
C.400 tonnes deadweight
D.400 gross tonnage
35.Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least ______________ in calm waters.
A.5 minutes
B.15 minutes
C.30 minutes
D.60 minutes
36.Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of ______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then ___________________should be provided.
A.zero, cold starting spray
B.-5, heating arrangements
C.Zero, heating arrangements
D.-5,cold starting spray
37.Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________
A.B class divisions
B.A class divisions
C.A30 class divisions
D.B 30 class divisions
38.As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
A.Any of the tanks without any restriction
B.Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C.Deep tanks in protective locations
D.Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
39.Which of the following statements is true?
A.The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.
B.The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
C.The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D.The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
A.the forced ventilating system is operating
B.the cargo pumps are secured
C.no monocarbon gases are present
D.the oily water separator is de-energized
22.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?
A.IOPP certificate
B.Oil Record Book
C.SOPEP
D.Safety Management Certificate.
23.When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A.metacentric differential
B.height of the baseline
C.height of the metacenter
D.righting arm
24.Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________
A.ISPS code
B.ISM code
C.Chapter V of Solas
D.None of the above
25.Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A.Sea anchor
B.Fishing tackle
C.Drinking water cans
D.Life Jacket
26.As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______ functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency. A.Seven
B.Four
C.Six
D.Three
27.Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A.COLREG 1972
B.SAR 1979
C.SOLAS 1974
D.SALVAGE 1989
28.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A.Oils and chemicals
B.Oils other than crude oils
C.Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D.Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
29.Which of the following statements is false?
A.A ship security plan is made by the CSO
B.A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C.A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
D.None of the above
30.In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are
A.thirsty
B.sick or injured
C.wet
D.awake
31.Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds?A.Exposure to excessive heat.
B.Mixing of different grades of foam.
C.Exposure to air.
D.None of the above.
32.In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A.Oxygen content above 8%
B.Low water level in deck seal
C.Low water level in the scrubber tower
D.High scrubber water level
33.The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is known as _____________________
A.Williamson stretcher
B.Neil Hobson stretcher
C.Neil Robertson stretcher
D.Stokes stretcher
34.As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A.150 tonnes deadweight
B.150 gross tonnage
C.400 tonnes deadweight
D.400 gross tonnage
35.Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least ______________ in calm waters.
A.5 minutes
B.15 minutes
C.30 minutes
D.60 minutes
36.Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of ______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then ___________________should be provided.
A.zero, cold starting spray
B.-5, heating arrangements
C.Zero, heating arrangements
D.-5,cold starting spray
37.Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________
A.B class divisions
B.A class divisions
C.A30 class divisions
D.B 30 class divisions
38.As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
A.Any of the tanks without any restriction
B.Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C.Deep tanks in protective locations
D.Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
39.Which of the following statements is true?
A.The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.
B.The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
C.The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D.The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
Ship Safety - MEO Class 4 Online exam Practice / Previous Questions
1.As
per MARPOL Annex -1 definition, “Special area” means:
A.Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B.Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
C.Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
D.Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
2.In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A.Safety Management Manual
B.The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C.First Aid Booklet
D.Code of safe working practices
3.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest
4.When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A.passed around so all can drink
B.poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C.saved to be used at a later time
D.used to boil food
5.Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A.Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
B.Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6.Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A.Master
B.USCG
C.Qualified Individual
D.Technical Superintendent
7.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and other dirty oils
B.Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C.Crude oil only
D.Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8.Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A.Council
B.Assembly
C.Facilitation Committee
D.None of the above
9.The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A.13.5 Kgs
B.23 Kgs
C.9 Kgs
D.46 Kgs
10.Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A.CLC 1992
B.Fund convention
C.LLMC
D.OPA 1990
11.If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A.Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B.Notify the ballast control operator.
C.Shutdown the transfer operations
D.Sound the fire alarm.
12.As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
B.Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
C.A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D.Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13.As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using _______________
A.5000, Sea Water Washing
B.10000, Fresh Water Washing
C.20000, Crude Oil Washing
D.30000, Bilge Water Washing
14.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
14.Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?
A.Neil Robertson turn
B.Williamson turn.
C.Hard port
D.Hard starboard.
15.The parent instrument of IMO is:
A.UNCLOS I, 1958
B.UNCLOS II, 1960
C.UNCLOS III, 1974
D.The IMO convention
16.After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A.walked around until he is back to normal
B.given several shots of whiskey
C.kept lying down and warm
D.allowed to do as he wishes
17.Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A.Marpol 73/78
B.London convention
C.Hongkong convention
D.Kenya convention
18.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
19Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest.
20.To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST
A.open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B.start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C.open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D.open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
A.Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B.Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
C.Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
D.Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
2.In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A.Safety Management Manual
B.The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C.First Aid Booklet
D.Code of safe working practices
3.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest
4.When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A.passed around so all can drink
B.poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C.saved to be used at a later time
D.used to boil food
5.Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A.Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
B.Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6.Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A.Master
B.USCG
C.Qualified Individual
D.Technical Superintendent
7.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and other dirty oils
B.Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C.Crude oil only
D.Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8.Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A.Council
B.Assembly
C.Facilitation Committee
D.None of the above
9.The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A.13.5 Kgs
B.23 Kgs
C.9 Kgs
D.46 Kgs
10.Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A.CLC 1992
B.Fund convention
C.LLMC
D.OPA 1990
11.If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A.Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B.Notify the ballast control operator.
C.Shutdown the transfer operations
D.Sound the fire alarm.
12.As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
B.Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
C.A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D.Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13.As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using _______________
A.5000, Sea Water Washing
B.10000, Fresh Water Washing
C.20000, Crude Oil Washing
D.30000, Bilge Water Washing
14.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
14.Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?
A.Neil Robertson turn
B.Williamson turn.
C.Hard port
D.Hard starboard.
15.The parent instrument of IMO is:
A.UNCLOS I, 1958
B.UNCLOS II, 1960
C.UNCLOS III, 1974
D.The IMO convention
16.After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A.walked around until he is back to normal
B.given several shots of whiskey
C.kept lying down and warm
D.allowed to do as he wishes
17.Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A.Marpol 73/78
B.London convention
C.Hongkong convention
D.Kenya convention
18.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
19Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest.
20.To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST
A.open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B.start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C.open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D.open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
Ship safety and construction, naval architecture MCQ meo class 4 online questions
121)The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) volume of displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
122)The free surface effects of a partially full liquid tank decrease with increased __________.
A) density of the liquid
B) placement of the tank above the keel
C) displacement volume of the vessel
D) size of the surface area in the tank
123)The free surface correction depends upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquid and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
124)The free surface effects of a partially full tank in a vessel increase with the __________.
A) surface area of the fluid in the tank
B) displacement volume of the vessel
C) draft of the vessel
D) height of the tank above the keel
125)The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
A) flowing from side to side within the vessel
B) flowing from fore to aft within a vessel
C) flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
D) pocketing in a slack tank as a vessel heels
126)The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
A) from side to side in the tanks of the vessel
B) from fore to aft in the tanks of a vessel
C) in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
D) in and out of a vessel that is holed in a peak tank
127)Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
A) length and width of space
B) length of space only
C) width of space only
D) neither length nor width
128)Free communication will adversely affect transverse stability only when the flooded space is __________.
A) off-center
B) on the centerline
C) completely flooded
D) open to the sea above and below the waterline
129)What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half full tank onboard a vessel?
A) Corrosion from the shifting liquid
B) Rupturing of bulkheads from the shifting liquid
C) Loss of stability from free surface effect
D) Holing of the tank bottom from the weight of the shifting liquid
130)You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most
important concerning the stability of the vessel?
A) Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
B) Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
C) Maneuvering the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
D) metacentric heightving burned debris from the cargo hold
131)To calculate the free surface correction, it is necessary to divide the freesurface moments by the __________.
A) total weight of liquid loads
B) total displacement
C) lightweight
D) deadweight
132)The correction to KG for transverse free surface effects may be found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
A) transverse free surface correction for the vessel
B) sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
C) sum of the transverse free surface moments of the vessel
D) transverse baseline of the vessel
133)The correction to KG for longitudinal free surface effects for a vessel can be
found by dividing the vessel's displacement into the __________.
A) transverse free surface correction for the vessel
B) sum of the vertical moments of the vessel
C) sum of the longitudinal free surface moments of the vessel
D) longitudinal centerline of the vessel
134)Reducing the liquid free surfaces in a vessel reduces the __________.
A) roll period
B) metacentric height
C) waterplane area
D) vessel's draft
135)A tank which is NOT completely full or empty is called __________.
A) pressed
Ship construction
B) slack
C) inertial
D) elemental
\
136)A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of a vessel when it is __________.
A) low in the vessel
B) completely empty
C) completely full
D) slack
137)To prevent loss of stability from free communication flooding you should
__________.
A) close the cross-connection valve between the off-center tanks
B) completely flood high center tanks
C) ballast double bottom wing tanks
D) close any opening to the sea in an off-center tank
138)The effect of free surface on initial stability depends upon __________.
A) the amount of liquid in the compartment
B) the dimensions of the liquid surface and the vessel's displacement
C) only the length of the compartment
D) the vertical position of the liquid in the vessel
139)The effects of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the __________.
A) volume of displacement of the vessel
B) dimensions of the surface of the liquid
C) amount of liquid in slack tanks
D) specific gravity of the liquid in the tank
140)The most important figure in calculating the free surface constant of a tank
carrying liquids is __________.
Ship construction
A) depth
B) length
C) displacement
D) breadth
Multiple choice questions for Ship construction- MEO class 4 online e pariksha
101)The difference between the starboard and port drafts due to wind or seas is called __________.
A) list
B) heel
C) trim
D) flotation
102)Forces within a vessel have caused a difference between the starboard and port drafts. This difference is called __________.
A) list
B) heel
Ship construction
C) trim
D) flotation
103)The maximum mean draft to which a vessel may be safely loaded is called __________.
A) mean draft
B) calculated draft
C) deep draft
D) load line draft
104)That center around which a vessel trims is called the __________.
A) tipping center
B) center of buoyancy
C) center of gravity
D) turning center
105)The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.
A) tonnage
B) reserve buoyancy
C) draft
D) freeboard
106)For an upright vessel, draft is the vertical distance between the keel and the __________.
A) waterline
B) freeboard deck
C) Plimsoll mark
D) amidships section
107)After transferring a weight forward on a vessel, the draft at the center of flotation will __________.
A) change, depending on the location of the LCG
B) increase
C) decrease
D) remain constant
108)The average of the forward and after drafts is the __________.
A) mean draft
B) true mean draft
C) mean of the calculated drafts
D) draft at the center of flotation
109)In order to calculate the TPI of a vessel, for any given draft, it is necessary to
divide the area of the waterplane by __________.
A) 35.0
B) 120.0
C) 240.0
D) 420.0
110)As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface__________.
A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains the same
D) may increase or decrease depending on the fineness of the vessel's form
111)When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks__________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) are directly proportional
D) remain unchanged
112) When displacement increases, the free surface moments of slack tanks __________.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) are inversely proportional
D) remain unchanged
113)A tank 36 ft. by 36 ft. by 6 ft. is filled with water to a depth of 5 ft. If a bulkhead
is placed in the center of the tank running fore-and-aft along the 36-foot axis, how
will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected?
A) The moment of inertia would remain unchanged.
B) The moment of inertia would be 1/4 its original value.
C) The moment of inertia would be 1/2 the original value.
D) None of the above
114)Many vessels are provided with flume tanks, which also have a dump tank
located under the flume tanks. In the event the ship is damaged, you could dump
the flume tanks into the dump tank which would __________.
A) reduce the free surface effect and raise the KG
B) not have any effect on free surface and raise the KG
C) reduce the free surface effect and lower the KG
D) not have any effect on free surface and lower the KG
115)Which statement about the free surface correction is TRUE?
A) It is added to the uncorrected GM to arrive at the corrected available GM.
B) It is obtained by dividing the free surface moments by 12 times the volume of displacement.
C) It is obtained by dividing the total free surface by the total vertical moments.
D) It is subtracted from the total longitudinal moments before dividing by
displacement to find LCG.
116)Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the __________.
A) uncorrected KG
B) virtual height of the center of gravity
C) metacenter
Ship construction
D) metacentric height
117)Increasing free surfaces has the effect of raising the __________.
A) uncorrected KG
B) virtual height of the center of gravity
C) metacenter
D) metacentric height
118)Subtracting FSCT from KGT yields __________.
A) BL
B) GMT
C) FSCT
D) KG
119)Adding the FSCL to KG yields __________.
A) KM
B) GM
C) KGT
D) KGL
120)The effects of free surface on initial stability depend upon the dimensions of the surface of the free liquids and the __________.
A) volume of liquid in the tank
B) volume of displacement of the vessel
C) location of the tank in the vessel
D) height of the center of gravity of the vessel
MEO Class 4 - e pariksha online mcq for ship construction
82)A chock __________.
A) is a deck fitting used to shackle gear to the deck
B) permits easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
C) prevents stress concentration in the bulwark
D) provides openings through the bulwark for mooring lines
83)What is the purpose of the freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks?
A) Allow water which may be shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
B) Permit easy jettisoning of deck cargo in an emergency
C) Prevent the formation of any unusual stress concentration points
D) Lighten the above deck weight caused by a solid bulwark
84)Freeing ports on a vessel with solid bulwarks __________.
A) prevent stress concentration in the bulwark
B) permit easy jettison of deck cargo in an emergency
C) provide openings through the bulwarks for mooring lines
D) allow water shipped on deck to flow off rapidly
85)One function of a bulwark is to __________.
A) help keep the deck dry
B) prevent stress concentrations on the stringer plate
C) protect against twisting forces exerted on the frame of the vessel
D) reinforce the side stringers
86)A deck fitting, used to secure line or wire rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a __________.
A) bitt
B) bollard
C) capstan
D) cleat
87)A vessel is constructed with a steel hull and an aluminum superstructure. Which statement is TRUE?
A) The aluminum will provide greater resistance to the spread of fire by conduction.
B) The aluminum structure is usually attached to a steel coaming by a method that insulates the two metals.
C) If the superstructure is stressed, an aluminum structure requires additional expansion joints to prevent fracture.
D) The steel at the area of the aluminum-to-steel connection must be closely checked for galvanic corrosion.
88)Sometimes it is desirable to connect a member both by riveting and welding.
Which statement is TRUE concerning this procedure?
A) Tearing through the member is more likely in this type connection.
B) The weld may be broken by the stresses caused by riveting.
C) The weld increases the tensile stress on the rivet heads.
D) The welding must be completed before the riveting commences.
89)A welded joint's effectiveness is considered __________.
A) 48%
B) 90%
C) 100%
D) 121%
90)What welding pattern is NOT used to permanently attach a stiffener to a plate?
A) Chain intermittent
B) Tack
C) Continuous
D) Staggered intermittent
91)The welds used to attach stiffeners to a plate are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet welds
D) plate welds
92)The welds used to join shell plates in flush construction are known as __________.
A) butt welds
B) seam welds
C) fillet
D) continuous welds
C) fillet welds
D) continuous welds
Ship construction
93)The smallest size of flaw that can be detected on a radiograph examination of a
weld will be indicated by the __________.
A) film speed
B) penetrometer
C) exposure reading
D) time of exposure
94)Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
A) Radiographic
B) Magnetic particle
C) Dye penetrant
D) Chemical reaction
95)Which type of weld testing can be used to detect internal flaws?
A) Magnetic particle
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonic
D) Chemical reaction
96)Which weld fault can only be detected by a method that examines the internal structure of a weld?
A) Undercut
B) Lack of reinforcement
C) Overlap
D) Lack of penetration
97)Ultrasonic testing is used to determine the thickness of a vessel's shell plating and to __________.
A) provide tail shaft clearances
B) test welds for subsurface defects
C) check the wear of the rudder carrier bearing
D) test the links of the anchor cables while being ranged
98)The type of welding employed in shipyards is primarily __________.
A) brazing
B) electric arc
C) pressure welding
D) thermite welding
99)A wind has caused a difference between drafts starboard and port. This difference is __________.
A) list
B) heel
C) trim
D) flotation
100)The difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading is known as __________.
A) trim
B) change of trim
C) final trim
D) change of draft
marine engineering class 4 online exam mcq questions for ship construction
61)Which is NOT an advantage of the flush method of welded shell plating?
A) Reduces weight
B) Reduces frictional resistance
C) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints
D) Reduces plate stress
62)Shell plating that has curvature in two directions and must be heated and hammered to shape over specially prepared forms is called __________.
A) compound plate
B) furnaced plate
C) flat plate
D) rolled plate
63)Shell plating is __________.
A) the galvanizing on steel
B) a hatch cover
C) the outer plating of a vessel
D) synonymous with decking
64)bilge keels are fitted on ships to __________.
A) assist in dry dock alignment
B) improve the vessel's stability
C) protect the vessel from slamming against piers
D) reduce the rolling of the vessel
65)The function of the bilge keel is to __________.
A) reduce the rolling of the vessel
B) serve as the vessel's main strength member
C) add strength to the bilge
D) protect the vessel's hull when alongside a dock
66)Bilge keels are more effective at dampening rolls as the __________.
A) pitching increases
B) list increases
C) rolling increases
D) draft decreases
67)Which statement about bilge keels is CORRECT?
A) They are critical strength members and require careful design consideration.
B) They increase resistance to rolling.
C) They attach to a low stress area.
D) They provide support when the vessel is dry docked.
68)The strength of a deck will be increased by adding __________.
A) camber
B) deck beam brackets
C) hatch beams
D) sheer
69)To rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing, a horizontal plate is fitted across the forepeak of a vessel. This plate is known as a(n) __________.
A) apron plate
B) breasthook
C) intercostal plate
D) joiner
70)Panting frames are located in the __________.
A) after double bottoms
B) centerline tanks on tankships
C) fore and after peaks
D) forward double bottoms
71)The extension of the after part of the keel in a single- screw vessel upon which the stern post rests is called the __________.
A) boss
B) knuckle
C) skeg
D) strut
72)On a single-screw vessel the stern frame _________.
A) furnishes support to the rudder, propeller shaft, and transom frame
B) provides foundations for after mooring winches
C) provides foundations for the main propulsion engines
D) transfers the driving force of the propeller to the hull
73)The ratio of the height of a vessel's rudder to its width is referred to as the __________.
A) aspect ratio
B) constriction ratio
C) rudder ratio
D) steering ratio
74)The term "pintle" and "gudgeon" are associated with the __________.
A) anchor windlass
B) jumbo boom
C) rudder
D) steering engine
75)The projecting lugs of the rudderpost which furnish support to the rudder are called __________.
A) bases
B) gudgeons
C) pintles
D) rudder lugs
76)The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's __________.
A) cargo hatch
B) forecastle
C) steering engine
D) stern
77)The pitch of a propeller is a measure of the __________.
A) angle that the propeller makes with a free stream of water
B) angle that the propeller makes with the surface of the water
C) number of feet per revolution the propeller is designed to advance in still water without slip
D) positive pressure resulting from the difference of the forces on both sides of the moving propeller in still water without slip
78)A Kort nozzle is a(n) __________.
A) hollow tube surrounding the propeller used to improve thrust
B) nozzle attached to a firefighting hose
C) intake valve on a diesel engine
D) piston cylinder on a diesel engine
79)A "contra-guide" is a type of __________.
A) bow thruster
B) cargo gear
C) steering engine
D) rudder
80)The horizontal flat surfaces where the upper stock joins the rudder are the __________.
A) rudder keys
B) rudder palms
C) lifting flanges
D) shoes of the rudder
Ship construction previous questions for meo class iv online exam
41)in nautical terminology a "dog" is a __________.
A) crow bar
B) device to force a water tight door against the frame
C) heavy steel beam
D) wedge
42)When using the term "limber system" one is referring to a __________.
A) cleaning system
B) drainage system
C) strengthening system
D) weight reduction system
43)"Limber" is a term associated with __________.
A) emergency gear
B) drainage
C) deck cargo storage
D) securing gear
44)the perforated, elevated bottom of the chain locker, which prevents the chains from touching the main locker bottom and allows seepage water to flow to the drains, is called a __________
A) cradle
B) draft
C) harping
D) manger
45)The "margin plate" is the __________.
A) outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom
B) outer strake of plating on each side of the main deck of a vessel
C) plate which sits atop the center vertical keel
D) uppermost continuous strake of plating on the shell of a vessel
44)What is NOT an advantage of double bottom ships?
A) The tank top forms a second skin for the vessel.
B) The center of gravity of a loaded bulk cargo ship may be raised to produce a more comfortable roll.
C) The floors and longitudinals distribute the upward push of the water on the ship's bottom.
D) They are less expensive to construct because of increased access space.
47)Which statement is TRUE concerning protection of double bottom tanks against excessive pressure?
A) Each vent for the tank must be equal to the area of the tank filling line.
B) The tanks must be protected by overflows.
C) The total area of the vents or the overflow shall be at least 125% of the area of the fill line.
D) There must be twice as much vent area as the area of the fill line.
48)Which statement concerning solid floors is TRUE?
A) They must be watertight.
B) They may have lightening, limber, or air holes cut into them.
C) They are built of structural frames connected by angle struts and stiffeners, with flanged plate brackets at each end.
D) They are lighter than open floors.
49)The "inner bottom" is the __________.
A) tank top
B) compartment between the tank top and shell of the vessel
C) inner side of the vessel's shell
D) space between two transverse bottom frames
50)The garboard strake is the __________.
A) raised flange at the main deck edge
B) riveted crack arrester strap on all-welded ships
C) riveting pattern most commonly used in ship construction
D) row of plating nearest the keel
51)The strake on each side of the keel is called
B) gatewood strake
C) insulation strake
D) garboard strake
52)In vessel construction, the garboard strake is __________.
A) located next to and parallel to the keel
B) located next to and parallel to the gunwale
C) another term for the bilge keel
D) another term for the rub rail
53)Another name for the garboard strake is the __________.
A) A strake
B) Z strake
C) side keel plate
D) stringer plate
54)The term "strake" is used in reference to __________.
A) rudder mountings
Ship construction
B) anchor gear
C) hull plating
D) vessel framing
55)The joint formed when two steel shell plates are placed longitudinally side to side is called a __________.
A) bevel
B) bond
C) strake
D) seam
56)The joint formed when two steel plates are placed end-to-end is called a __________.
A) bevel
B) seam
C) butt
D) bond
57)Owing to the greater girth of a ship amidships than at the ends, certain strakes are dropped as they approach the bow and stern to reduce the amount of plating at the ends. These strakes are called __________.
A) drop strakes
B) stealers
C) throughs
D) voids
58)To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at their ends by a single plate. This plate is known as a __________.
A) cover plate
B) joiner
C) lap strake
Ship construction
D) stealer plate
59)Which arrangement of shell plating is used most in modern shipbuilding?
A) Clinker
B) Flush
C) In-and-Out
D) Joggled
60)What is NOT an advantage of ship construction methods using welded butt joints in the shell plating?
A) Keeps practically 100% of tensile strength at the joints
B) Reduces frictional resistance
C) Reduces plate stress
D) Reduces weight
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)
