MET online exam practice and previous questions
1.A poly-phase motor driving an engine room pump fails to start. When trying to identify the cause of failure, which of the following steps are applicable?
A.Visually examine motor for open circuit faults.
B.Visually examine starter for open circuit faults.
C.Reverse the direction of electrical supply to check if it works.
D.Perform the infinite resistance test.
2.Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board when
A.Conductor flexibility is required
B.De-soldering components in the circuit
C.Electrically produced magnetic fluxes would cause inaccuracies in adjacent components
D.Reactance in the circuit must be kept to a minimum
3.Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier?
A.To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor.
B.For use as a voltage reference diode.
C.For sensing flame in an automated burner.
D.To eliminate power supply hum.
4.When paralleling an AC generator with live bus bars, which of the following precautions are applicable?
A.Generator frequency should be slightly lower than bus bar frequency
B.Generator frequency should be slightly higher than bus bar frequency
C.Generator voltage should be in phase with bus bar voltage
D.Generator voltage should be out of phase with bus bar voltage
5.A certain appliance uses 750 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 15 days, how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume?
6.With reference to a Data Logger for a refrigeration system, which of the following parameters should be monitored?
A.Room temperature.
B.Liquid Line temperature.
C.Recharge temperature.
D.Solenoid valve operation.
8.With reference to a Data Logger for a refrigeration system, which of the following parameters should be monitored?
A.Sea water temperature and pressure.
B.Condensing temperature
C.Refrigerant leakage
D.Evaporating temperature
9.The induced voltage across a stationary conductor in a steady magnetic field is zero.
True
False
10.For leading power factor circuits, which of the following can be used?
A.Shunt Capacitors only
B.Shunt Reactors only
C.Either Shunt Capacitors or Shunt Reactors
D.Neither Shunt Capacitors Nor Shunt Reactors
11.A molded-case breaker provides protection against short-circuits by usinga/an
A.Shading coil.
B.Arc quencher.
c.Electromagnet.
D.Holding coil.
12.Fuses placed in series with a thermal trip = - type circuit breaker are used for
A.Time-delay protection
B.Short-circuit protection
C.Short duration surge protection
D.Sustained overload protection
13.Which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning the internals of a motor with compressed air?
A.Open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust to escape.
B.Be certain that the circuit breaker is opened and tagged on the feeder panel.
C.Be certain that the air is clean and as dry as possible.
D.Ensure that the fuse in the motor is removed.
14.A fuse that blows often should be replaced only with a fuse of
A.the recommended current and voltage rating
B.higher current and voltage rating
C.higher current and lower voltage rating
D.lower current and higher voltage rating
15.Open-loop transfer function of a system having one zero with positive real values is called (1)________
16.Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element consists of a
A.Cylindrical spring on the contact arm.
B.Conical spring on the contact arm.
C.Second bimetal element.
D.Second electromagnet.
17.Brushless generators are designed to operate without the use of
A.brushes
B.sliprings
C.commutators
D.all of the above
18.What is the magnetomotive force in a 75-turn coil of wire when there are 4 A of current through it?
19.In what range of voltages is the transistor in the linear region of its operation?
A.0 < VCE < 0.7 V
B.0.7 < VCE < 1.4 V
C.0.7 < VCE < VCE(max)
D.0 < VCE < VCE(max)
20.The current in a semiconductor is produced by:
A.Electrons
B.Neutrons
C.Protons
D.Holes
21.AC circuits possess characteristics of resistance, inductance, and capacitance.The capacitive reactance of acircuit is expressed in
A.ohms
B.mhos
C.henrys
D.farads
22.The greatest detrimental effect on idle electrical equipment, such as cargo pump motors,is the
A.Loss of residualmagnetism.
B.Absorption of moisture in the insulation.
C.Insulation varnish flaking.
D.Dirt collecting on the windings.
23.If it takes 35 J of energy to move a charge of 6 C from one point to another, what is the voltage between the two points? Your answer should be correct to two decimals.
24.The basic measuring unit of inductance is the
A.coulomb
B.ohm
C.farad
D.henry
Marine Electro Technology - MET E-Pariksha online questions
1.Which of the following statements is true concerning a poly-phase synchronous propulsion motor?
A.The motor is started as an induction motor.
B.Resistance is gradually added to the rotor circuit.
C.The starting current is held below the rated current.
D.The field winding is energized for starting purposes only.
2.When reading electrical motor controller diagrams, it helps to know that ____________.
A.current paths in the control circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in the power circuit as lighter lines
B.current paths in the power circuit are drawn as heavy lines and in control circuit as lighter lines
C.circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as heavy lines and below 500 volts as lighter lines
D.circuits subject to 500 volts or greater are drawn as light lines and below 500 volts as heavy
3.Alternating current circuits develop resistance, inductance and capacitance. The inductance of a coil is expressed in _____________.
A.ohms
B. mhos
C. henrys
D. farads
4.Large cable sizes are formed as individual conductors that may be comprised of several smaller strands to __________.
A.obtain the flexibility required for easy handling
B.reduce the overall weight of the wire run
C.reduce the number of supports needed for a horizontal overhead run
D.all of the above
5.Which of the following is having Di-Electric Constant 80?
A.Air
B. water
C. Mica
D. Caster oil
6.Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element consists of a ______________.
A.cylindrical spring on the contact arm
B.conical spring on the contact arm
C.second bimetal element
D.second electromagnet
7.Which of the following precautions should you take when securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time?
A.Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and circulate air through the units.
B.Disconnect the brush pigtails from their contacts and discharge carbon dioxide into the units to keep them dry.
C.Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and use the built-in heater to prevent moisture accumulation.
D.Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and circulate cool dry air through the units.
8.The direction of magnetic flux changes when the direction of current is reversed.
True / False
9.In a Transistor
A.PNP and NPN are two basic types
B.Emitter,Collector and Base are the basic Elements.
C.Collector separates Base and Emitter
D.Emitter separates Base and Collector
9. In a P-Type Semiconductor, the majority current Carriers are ___________.
10.In a Control Loop System, having Zero(0) Positive Real Values are called ____________.
11. If a Motor is not rotating in the E/R, you will carry out the following Checks (multiple choice, 3 Questions of same type but Options were different )
A. Check for the isolation
B. Rotate the Coupling with your hand
C. Check for the Circuit breaker
D. Remove the fuses
E Look for the Overload Trip
F. Visually Inspect the motor terminals
G. Visually Inspect the Starter Terminals
H. Carry out Infinite Resistance Test
14. Calculate the Velocity of the conductor (up to 0 decimal places), if terminal voltage is 2.2 V/m and the magnetic field strength is 0.2 T. .
15. Calculate the frequency of the motor ( up to 0 decimal places),, if the speed if 4800 Rpm and number of Poles is 2.
16. If the resistance of any coil is 120 Ohm. Calculate the Resistance (up to 0 decimal places), when its Length is increased by 20% and its Diameter is increased by 50%.
17. What is the power in a Resistor in Milli Watts (up to 0 decimal places), having Resistance of 12 Ohm having a Potential Difference of 3 V.
18. Resistance of a wire is increased if the Length is____ and Area is _____.
19. Arrange the following in Increasing Order of their Doping Strength. Answer is-Base, collector, emitter
A. Collector, Emitter, Base
B. Base, Emitter, Collector
C. Emitter, Base, Collector
D. Emitter, Collector, Collector Base, Collector, Base
20. Which of the listed precautions should be taken when cleaning
the internals of a motor with compressed air?
A. Open the machine on both ends so as to allow the air and dust to escape.
B. Be certain that the circuit breaker is opened and tagged on the feeder panel.
C. Be certain that the air is clean and as dry as possible.
D. All of the above
Marine Ship safety previous asked online questions for MEO Class 4 online exam
21.Prior to
entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that
A.the forced ventilating system is operating
B.the cargo pumps are secured
C.no monocarbon gases are present
D.the oily water separator is de-energized
22.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?
A.IOPP certificate
B.Oil Record Book
C.SOPEP
D.Safety Management Certificate.
23.When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A.metacentric differential
B.height of the baseline
C.height of the metacenter
D.righting arm
24.Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________
A.ISPS code
B.ISM code
C.Chapter V of Solas
D.None of the above
25.Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A.Sea anchor
B.Fishing tackle
C.Drinking water cans
D.Life Jacket
26.As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______ functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency. A.Seven
B.Four
C.Six
D.Three
27.Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A.COLREG 1972
B.SAR 1979
C.SOLAS 1974
D.SALVAGE 1989
28.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A.Oils and chemicals
B.Oils other than crude oils
C.Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D.Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
29.Which of the following statements is false?
A.A ship security plan is made by the CSO
B.A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C.A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
D.None of the above
30.In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are
\A.thirsty
B.sick or injured
C.wet
D.awake
31.Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds?A.Exposure to excessive heat.
B.Mixing of different grades of foam.
C.Exposure to air.
D.None of the above.
32.In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A.Oxygen content above 8%
B.Low water level in deck seal
C.Low water level in the scrubber tower
D.High scrubber water level
33.The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is known as _____________________
A.Williamson stretcher
B.Neil Hobson stretcher
C.Neil Robertson stretcher
D.Stokes stretcher
34.As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A.150 tonnes deadweight
B.150 gross tonnage
C.400 tonnes deadweight
D.400 gross tonnage
35.Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least ______________ in calm waters.
A.5 minutes
A.the forced ventilating system is operating
B.the cargo pumps are secured
C.no monocarbon gases are present
D.the oily water separator is de-energized
22.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?
A.IOPP certificate
B.Oil Record Book
C.SOPEP
D.Safety Management Certificate.
23.When a vessel is floating upright, the distance from the keel to the metacenter is called the
A.metacentric differential
B.height of the baseline
C.height of the metacenter
D.righting arm
24.Voyage data recorders (VDR) or simplified voyage data recorders (S-VDR) are required to be installed on board certain ships as per_____________
A.ISPS code
B.ISM code
C.Chapter V of Solas
D.None of the above
25.Which of the following is not found inside a lifeboat?
A.Sea anchor
B.Fishing tackle
C.Drinking water cans
D.Life Jacket
26.As per STCW code, the abilities specified under standards of competence are grouped under _______ functions, for the purpose of issuing certificates of competency. A.Seven
B.Four
C.Six
D.Three
27.Under which IMO convention is Voyage Data Recorder- Certificate of compliance issued?
A.COLREG 1972
B.SAR 1979
C.SOLAS 1974
D.SALVAGE 1989
28.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a product tanker is one which can carry:
A.Oils and chemicals
B.Oils other than crude oils
C.Oil product and occasionally crude oils
D.Mainly chemical products but at times refined oil products
29.Which of the following statements is false?
A.A ship security plan is made by the CSO
B.A ship security plan is a confidential document.
C.A ship security plan needs to be approved by the flag state administration
D.None of the above
30.In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are
\A.thirsty
B.sick or injured
C.wet
D.awake
31.Which of the following conditions can lead to degradation of foam compounds?A.Exposure to excessive heat.
B.Mixing of different grades of foam.
C.Exposure to air.
D.None of the above.
32.In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?
A.Oxygen content above 8%
B.Low water level in deck seal
C.Low water level in the scrubber tower
D.High scrubber water level
33.The stretcher normally used for rescue of casualties from engine room spaces, holds, pump-rooms etc., is known as _____________________
A.Williamson stretcher
B.Neil Hobson stretcher
C.Neil Robertson stretcher
D.Stokes stretcher
34.As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues
A.150 tonnes deadweight
B.150 gross tonnage
C.400 tonnes deadweight
D.400 gross tonnage
35.Life buoy self-activating smoke signals should emit smoke of visible colour for at least ______________ in calm waters.
A.5 minutes
B.15 minutes
C.30 minutes
D.60 minutes
36.Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of ______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then ___________________should be provided.
A.zero, cold starting spray
B.-5, heating arrangements
C.Zero, heating arrangements
D.-5,cold starting spray
37.Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________
A.B class divisions
B.A class divisions
C.A30 class divisions
D.B 30 class divisions
38.As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
A.Any of the tanks without any restriction
B.Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C.Deep tanks in protective locations
D.Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
39.Which of the following statements is true?
A.The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.
B.The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
C.The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D.The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
C.30 minutes
D.60 minutes
36.Emergency generators should be capable of being started at ambient temperature of ______________________ deg Centigrade. If lower temperatures are expected then ___________________should be provided.
A.zero, cold starting spray
B.-5, heating arrangements
C.Zero, heating arrangements
D.-5,cold starting spray
37.Divisions constructed of steel which can withstand a standard fire test for 30min without passage of flame or smoke are classified as____________________
A.B class divisions
B.A class divisions
C.A30 class divisions
D.B 30 class divisions
38.As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in:
A.Any of the tanks without any restriction
B.Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
C.Deep tanks in protective locations
D.Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship???s side
39.Which of the following statements is true?
A.The installation of an IMO approved incinerator is mandatory on all ships.
B.The installation of an incinerator is mandatory on all ships above 400 GRT.
C.The installation of an incinerator is not a mandatory requirement.
D.The installation of incinerators is mandatory only for dry ships
MEO class 4 "Safety" online questions , E-Pariksha
1.As
per MARPOL Annex -1 definition, Special area means:
A.Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B.Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
C.Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
D.Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
2.In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A.Safety Management Manual
B.The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C.First Aid Booklet
D.Code of safe working practices
3.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest
4.When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A.passed around so all can drink
B.poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C.saved to be used at a later time
D.used to boil food
5.Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A.Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
B.Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6.Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A.Master
B.USCG
C.Qualified Individual
D.Technical Superintendent
7.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and other dirty oils
B.Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C.Crude oil only
D.Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8.Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A.Council
B.Assembly
C.Facilitation Committee
D.None of the above
9.The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A.13.5 Kgs
B.23 Kgs
C.9 Kgs
D.46 Kgs
10.Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A.CLC 1992
B.Fund convention
C.LLMC
D.OPA 1990
11.If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A.Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B.Notify the ballast control operator.
C.Shutdown the transfer operations
D.Sound the fire alarm.
12.As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
B.Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
C.A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D.Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13.As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using _______________
A.5000, Sea Water Washing
B.10000, Fresh Water Washing
C.20000, Crude Oil Washing
D.30000, Bilge Water Washing
14.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
14.Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?
A.Neil Robertson turn
B.Williamson turn.
C.Hard port
D.Hard starboard.
15.The parent instrument of IMO is:
A.UNCLOS I, 1958
B.UNCLOS II, 1960
C.UNCLOS III, 1974
D.The IMO convention
16.After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A.walked around until he is back to normal
B.given several shots of whiskey
C.kept lying down and warm
D.allowed to do as he wishes
17.Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A.Marpol 73/78
B.London convention
C.Hongkong convention
D.Kenya convention
18.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
19Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest.
20.To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST
A.open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B.start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C.open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D.open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
A.Some specific areas where coastal state legislation doesn???t allow any bilge water/slop discharges
B.Areas as defined by Annex-1 where no bilge water/slop discharges are allowed
C.Areas as defined by Annex-1, where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
D.Areas as defined by Coastal state regulations(e.g. OPA-90), where special mandatory methods are adopted for the prevention of sea pollution by oil
2.In which of the following documents on board, authentic information about the circumstances and procedures to obtain Radio Medical Advice can be found?
A.Safety Management Manual
B.The Ship Captain's Medical Guide
C.First Aid Booklet
D.Code of safe working practices
3.Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest
4.When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be
A.passed around so all can drink
B.poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
C.saved to be used at a later time
D.used to boil food
5.Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?
A.Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
B.Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
C.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master???s fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
D.Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master???s fault, but because of a third party???s fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
6.Under OPA 90, who is responsible for mobilizing Oil Spill Removal Organization (OSRO), in the event of spill of oil or Noxious liquid Substances?
A.Master
B.USCG
C.Qualified Individual
D.Technical Superintendent
7.As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and other dirty oils
B.Crude oil alongwith some refined products
C.Crude oil only
D.Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
8.Which of the following organs of IMO consists of all member states?
A.Council
B.Assembly
C.Facilitation Committee
D.None of the above
9.The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is ______________
A.13.5 Kgs
B.23 Kgs
C.9 Kgs
D.46 Kgs
10.Under which maritime instrument is a Certificate of Financial Responsibility (COFR) issued?
A.CLC 1992
B.Fund convention
C.LLMC
D.OPA 1990
11.If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations on a MODU, which of the listed actions should be taken first?
A.Wait for the person-in-charge to act.
B.Notify the ballast control operator.
C.Shutdown the transfer operations
D.Sound the fire alarm.
12.As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry:
A.Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
B.Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
C.A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
D.Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
13.As per Marpol requirements, Every crude oil tanker of ______________ tones deadweight and above delivered after 1st June 1982, shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using _______________
A.5000, Sea Water Washing
B.10000, Fresh Water Washing
C.20000, Crude Oil Washing
D.30000, Bilge Water Washing
14.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
14.Which of the following is a man overboard maneuver?
A.Neil Robertson turn
B.Williamson turn.
C.Hard port
D.Hard starboard.
15.The parent instrument of IMO is:
A.UNCLOS I, 1958
B.UNCLOS II, 1960
C.UNCLOS III, 1974
D.The IMO convention
16.After a person has been revived by artificial respiration, they should be
A.walked around until he is back to normal
B.given several shots of whiskey
C.kept lying down and warm
D.allowed to do as he wishes
17.Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which of the following IMO conventions?
A.Marpol 73/78
B.London convention
C.Hongkong convention
D.Kenya convention
18.As per requirements of Marpol Annex -1, all ships of 400 gross tonnage and above:
A.Can carry fuel oil in fore peak, aft peak tanks and deep tanks
B.Cannot carry fuel oil in fore peak tank
C.Can carry fuel oil forward of collision bulkhead or aft of machinery space forward bulkhead, but not in the cargo area in case of tankers
D.Cannot carry more than 600 m3 of oil fuel in any single fuel tank
19Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the SOLAS convention?
A.Fire control plan/booklet
B.Maneuvering booklet
C.Minimum safe manning document
D.Records of hours of rest.
20.To prevent oil from escaping into the sea when ballasting through the cargo piping system, you should FIRST
A.open sea suction valves, then start the cargo pump
B.start the cargo pump, then open sea suction valves
C.open block valves, then start the cargo pump
D.open sluice valves, then start the cargo pump
MEO Class IV Marine ship safety online exam previous question
1: The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank
vessels is to __________.
a. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
b. prevent outside air from entering the tank
c. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
d. comply with double hull pollution prevention
regulations
2: In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most
critical time during bunkering is when ________
a. you first start to receive fuel
b. hoses are being blown down
c. final topping off is occurring
d. hoses are being disconnected
3: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an
adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many
breaths per minute?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 20
4: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is
designed to __________.
a. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to
vent to the outside atmosphere
d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making
explosion nearly impossible
5: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing
an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the
surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the
liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in
danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the
liferaft to inflate and open the container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft
with the hand pump.
6: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is
__________.
a. incapable of supporting combustion because the
hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Limit)
b. capable of supporting combustion because the
hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
c. capable of supporting a fire once started
d. not safe for ballasting
7: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than
lifeboats due to their __________.
a. shape
b. shallow draft
c. large sail area
d. All of the above
8: What is the generally accepted method of determining
whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is
explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has
been taken from the tank.
b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
d. Use an explosimeter
9: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine
room fire, you must __________.
a. secure the engine room ventilation
b. secure the machinery in the engine room
c. evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
10: You are fighting a fire in the electrical
switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then
__________.
a. use a portable foam extinguisher
b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d. determine the cause of the fire
11. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which
can form an explosive mixture is called the
__________.
a. auto-ignition point
b. flash point
c. lower explosive limit (LEL)
d. threshold limit value (TLV)
12: The deck water seal of the inert gas system
__________.
a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering
the cargo tanks
b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet
pressures exceed the safe working pressure in
the hazardous zone
c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into
nonhazardous areas
d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
13: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with
air is __________.
a. 0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c. 10% to 15%
d. 12% to 20%
14: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which
will stop __________.
a. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
b. air from entering the tank vent
c. vapors from leaving the tank vent
d. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
e Pariksha Marine Safety online questions for MEO Class 4 exam
1: In reference to accidental oil pollution,
the most critical time during bunkering is when ________
a. you first start to receive fuel
b. hoses are being blown down
c. final topping off is occurring
d. hoses are being disconnected
2: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many
breaths per minute?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 20
3: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.
a. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
4: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the
surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
5: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Limit)
b. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
c. capable of supporting a fire once started
d. not safe for ballasting
6: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
a. shape
b. shallow draft
c. large sail area
d. All of the above
7: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is
explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
d. Use an explosimeter
8: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
a. secure the engine room ventilation
b. secure the machinery in the engine room
c. evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
9: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then
__________.
a. use a portable foam extinguisher
b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d. determine the cause of the fire
10. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the
__________.
a. auto-ignition point
b. flash point
c. lower explosive limit (LEL)
d. threshold limit value (TLV)
11: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in
the hazardous zone
c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
12: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.
a. 0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c. 10% to 15%
d. 12% to 20%
13: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
a. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
b. air from entering the tank vent
c. vapors from leaving the tank vent
d. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
14. Surging, Swaying, Yawing, Pitching, Rolling, Heaving…Definitions Related Questions?
15. What is the size of Sea water suction pipe?
16. You as a fourth engineer have taken over watch from third engineer. He said OWS is running in 0 ppm. But after taking over watch you observed that fresh water flushing valve is crack open. After closing it, suddenly the oil content has exceeded 15ppm. What will you do?
a. shut the OWS & inform CEO.
b. shut the OWS but no need to inform anyone.
c. Don't touch the appratus & inform CEO.
d. Just check that there is no visible colour/oil traces in sea water so don't have to inform anyone.
a. you first start to receive fuel
b. hoses are being blown down
c. final topping off is occurring
d. hoses are being disconnected
2: When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many
breaths per minute?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 20
3: An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to __________.
a. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
b. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
c. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
d. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
4: Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the
surface upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
a. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
b. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
c. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
d. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
5: The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is __________.
a. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (Lower
Flammable Limit)
b. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (Upper
Flammable Limit)
c. capable of supporting a fire once started
d. not safe for ballasting
6: Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
a. shape
b. shallow draft
c. large sail area
d. All of the above
7: What is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is
explosive, too rich, or too lean to support combustion?
a. Use the open flame test on a small sample that has been taken from the tank.
b. Send a gas sample ashore for laboratory analysis.
c. Enter the tank with an oxygen analyzer.
d. Use an explosimeter
8: Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
a. secure the engine room ventilation
b. secure the machinery in the engine room
c. evacuate all engine room personnel
d. All of the above
9: You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then
__________.
a. use a portable foam extinguisher
b. use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
c. use a portable CO2 extinguisher
d. determine the cause of the fire
10. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the
__________.
a. auto-ignition point
b. flash point
c. lower explosive limit (LEL)
d. threshold limit value (TLV)
11: The deck water seal of the inert gas system __________.
a. cools the inert gas and prevents soot from entering the cargo tanks
b. acts as an emergency system shutdown when the inlet pressures exceed the safe working pressure in
the hazardous zone
c. prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
d. relieves sudden large overpressures in the system
12: The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is __________.
a. 0% to 1%
b. 1% to 10%
c. 10% to 15%
d. 12% to 20%
13: Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with a screen which will stop __________.
a. oil from flowing out of the tank vent
b. air from entering the tank vent
c. vapors from leaving the tank vent
d. flames on deck from entering the tank vent
14. Surging, Swaying, Yawing, Pitching, Rolling, Heaving…Definitions Related Questions?
15. What is the size of Sea water suction pipe?
16. You as a fourth engineer have taken over watch from third engineer. He said OWS is running in 0 ppm. But after taking over watch you observed that fresh water flushing valve is crack open. After closing it, suddenly the oil content has exceeded 15ppm. What will you do?
a. shut the OWS & inform CEO.
b. shut the OWS but no need to inform anyone.
c. Don't touch the appratus & inform CEO.
d. Just check that there is no visible colour/oil traces in sea water so don't have to inform anyone.
Marine ICCP - Impressed Current Cathodic Protection, application and advantages on board ship
The metal lying underneath the water are affected the
electrolytic or galvanic corrosion. This will leads to the reduction of the
thickness of the steel plate. The corrosion takes place as a result of the flow
of current between one metal and other metal in a solution. Here the solution
is sea water and the metals are the dissimilar metal area and the appendages of
the hull. This will lead to formation of an anode and cathode. Current will
flow from the anode to the cathode. Likely the ions from anode get deposited on
the cathode. The flow of current takes place from Anode to cathode and the
respective position of the metals in the galvanic series decide between anode
and cathode.
These anodic and cathodic areas exist in the ship’s
structure due coupling of metals of different compositions and potentials,
physical difference in grades, deterioration of metal or non-uniformity in
painting. Once such an area is formed, then the rate of corrosion accelerates
very fast. So as far as from owner’s viewpoint, it’s very important to avoid
the corrosion of the hull
The best method to avoid this issue is by introducing an
additional metal, which is more anodic to the existing metals on the ship’s
hull. The additional anode which will ultimately be sacrificed may consist of a
metal at the negative end of the galvanic series that is more electro negative
to the existing metals. This can be an ally of Aluminium, Zinc or Magnesium.
The basic principle is that the anode loose metal and cathode metal receives
the current and will remain intact and corrosion free.
A Direct Current is introduced into these metals. ICCP stand
for Impressed Current Cathodic Protection. The system consists of Anodes,
reference electrode and a controller power unit.
With the main hull protected, consideration should be given
to protect the propeller, exposed shaft and the rudder. They are made
electrically common to the hull. The propeller and the exposed shaft are
protected by grounding the shaft to hull with a slip ring. The rudder is grounded
by bonding the rudder stock to the hull.
MEP- Marine Engineering Practice online questions for MEO class 4
1.For the S.W. side of a M/E L.O.
cooler it is noticed that rise in S.W.temperature through the cooler has
decreased from 12 deg. C to 7 deg. C over a period of time, while the drop in
temperature of L.O. across the cooler has also decreased.All other coolers have
been reported to be working normal & M/E is also running at a constant load
in calm weather.What is the inference drawn by decrease in the temperature
difference?
A. The cooling S.W. inlet temperature has reduced
B. The efficiency of the cooler has increased over a period of time
C. The cooler has become dirty on the S.W. sideor L.O. side
D. S.W. side of the cooler may be partially blocked with mud and sea shells
A. The cooling S.W. inlet temperature has reduced
B. The efficiency of the cooler has increased over a period of time
C. The cooler has become dirty on the S.W. sideor L.O. side
D. S.W. side of the cooler may be partially blocked with mud and sea shells
2.Centrifugal pumps cannot handle air and require priming.But you are aware that centrifugal which on the same principal can handle air very well. Which two properties of air are responsible because of which the centrifugal pumps cannot handle air:-
A. Fluidity only
B. Density only
C. Both fluidity and density
D. Compressibility
3.Which of the following can lead to premature failure of roller bearings?
A. Misalignment
B. Contamination
C. Shrinkage
D. Over greasing
4.Surface preparation of steel surfaces , prior carrying out painting is
important because (choose the best alternative) :
A. Any rust and contaminant inclusions may cause local paint film breakdown
B. Too much paint will be consumed if surface preparation is not carried out
C. Surface will be very rough if proper surface preparation is not carried out
D. Surface preparation deposits a chemical onto steel surface which reacts with paint film and causes
strong bonding
5.Vacuum priming pumps which work on the principle of fixed vane pumps require _____________ for___________ clearance between vane tips and casing.
A. Lube oil, lubricating
B. Lube oil, sealing
C. Water, sealing
D. Gland packing, sealing
6.The flow rate through a F.O. transfer pump will not be affected by which of the following factors?
A. Low F.O. temperature
B. Low sounding in F.O. tank
C. Internal leakage within the pump
D. Leaking discharge valve
7.Which of the following can be done to reduce the cold corrosion of Main Engine cylinder liners using high sulphur fuel oil :-
A. Increasing cylinder oil feed rate
B. Using high TBN cylinder oil
C. Increasing scavenge air temperature
D. Decreasing cylinder oil feed rate
8.The suction pressure gauge of the Engine room bilge pump is brokenand you don???t have a spare. Chief Engineer has asked you totroubleshoot the problem with Bilge pump not taking suction from Fwd.(P) bilge well. You try taking suction from Fwd. (S) & Aft Bilgewell and find that pump is taking good suction. Thereafter you Try suction from Fwd. (P) bilge well for sometime after priming with Sea Water but there is no change in level. You inspect the suction filter of the pump and find that it is very difficult to remove the same,you had to apply too much of force to lift the filter cover while normally it comes out easily. What does it indicate?
A. It does not indicate anything, sometimes the filter covers are difficult to remove.
B. It indicates that the suction valve of the Fwd. Bilge Pump is leaking
C. It indicates that the suction filter of the Fwd. (P) bilge well is clogged completely
D. Pump suction filter might be clogged
9.Pump driven clutch type attached vacuum pumps are commonly used for
priming ballast pumps and emergency fire pumps. What is the factor which
clutches the vacuum pump clutch to the pump clutch during start of the pump?
A. Low suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
B. High suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
C. Low discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
D. High discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
A. Low suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
B. High suction pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
C. Low discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
D. High discharge pressure acting against the spring loaded clutching piston
10.It is given that engine room bilge pump has suction manifold on which 3 valves are located. One valve for the 3 engine room bilge wells suction, another one for Bilge tank suction and the third one is for sea water suction. It is found that the Bilge pump is unable to take suction from any of the bilge wells, but is able to take suction efficiently from Bilge tank. What is the most probable cause?
A. Pump suction filter cover gasket leaking
B. Suction filter cover gasket of one of the Bilge wells is leaking
C. Bilge well suction pipeline leaking between individual bilge well valves and suction manifold valve
D. Bilge pump suction pipeline leaking between the manifold and the pump
11.Chromium is a nobler metal when compared to that of steel . In some marine applications Chromium is electroplated to the steel surfaces . Why?
A. Chromium is a more noble metal so it will not get corroded and thus steel surfaces will remain protected
B. Chromium plating provides corrosion protection as well as high glossiness and high hardness for better wear resistance and reduced friction to the steel surfaces
C. Chromium plating is required for
providing high glossiness and high hardness for better wear resistance and
reduced friction to the steel surfaces and not for corrosion protection
D. Chromium reacts with steel to form an alloy during electroplating which is corrosion resistant
12.Correct method of greasing a centrifugal pump bearing is:
A. To pump the grease until you feel high back pressure on the Grease pump
B. To pump the greasefor 3-4 pumping strokes of Grease pump for each bearing
C. To pump the grease when the pump is stopped and drain any old grease at the same time by opening the drain plug, giving only 3-4 pumping strokes on Grease pump for each bearing. the drain plug should then be replaced
D. To pump the grease when the pump is running and drain any old grease at the same time by opening the drain plug,until all the old grease is removed and new grease starts coming out of the drain, repeating samefor each bearing. the drain plug should then be replaced
D. Chromium reacts with steel to form an alloy during electroplating which is corrosion resistant
12.Correct method of greasing a centrifugal pump bearing is:
A. To pump the grease until you feel high back pressure on the Grease pump
B. To pump the greasefor 3-4 pumping strokes of Grease pump for each bearing
C. To pump the grease when the pump is stopped and drain any old grease at the same time by opening the drain plug, giving only 3-4 pumping strokes on Grease pump for each bearing. the drain plug should then be replaced
D. To pump the grease when the pump is running and drain any old grease at the same time by opening the drain plug,until all the old grease is removed and new grease starts coming out of the drain, repeating samefor each bearing. the drain plug should then be replaced
13.It is given that engine room bilge pump has suction manifold on which
3 valves are located. One valve for the 3 engine room bilge wells suction,
another one for Bilge tank suction and the third one is for sea water suction.
It is found that the Bilge pump is unable to take suction from any of the bilge
wells, but is able to take suction efficiently from Bilge tank. What is the
most probable cause?
A. Pump suction filter cover gasket leaking
B. Suction filter cover gasket of one of the Bilge wells is leaking
C. Bilge well suction pipeline leaking between individual bilge well valves and suction manifold valve
D. Bilge pump suction pipeline leaking between the manifold and the pump
A. Pump suction filter cover gasket leaking
B. Suction filter cover gasket of one of the Bilge wells is leaking
C. Bilge well suction pipeline leaking between individual bilge well valves and suction manifold valve
D. Bilge pump suction pipeline leaking between the manifold and the pump
14.WHICH PROCESS IS NOT DONE ON MILD STEEL ..????
A. hot
plating,
B. electrolysis,
C. explosion bonding,
D. metal spraying
15.Increasing the rotational speed of a cargo pump the pump flow rate
will:
A. Increase in direct proportion to the increase in speed
B. Decrease in direct proportion to the increase in speed
C. Flow rate doesn???t depend upon speed
D. Flow
A. Increase in direct proportion to the increase in speed
B. Decrease in direct proportion to the increase in speed
C. Flow rate doesn???t depend upon speed
D. Flow
17.A ball valve was
found leaking in service. Upon inspection it wasfound that the PTFE seat had
worn out and was renewed. The valvestopped leaking in closed condition. How do
think a ball valve
provides perfect sealing?
A. The seat fitted is slightly smaller than the outer dimensions of the ball, thus providing interferencefit when closed
B. Either a floating seat is pressed onto trunnion supported ball by liquid pressure or floating ball is
pressed onto the seat
C. Ball is not exactly spherical and is shaped such that during closure the surface coming into contact
with seat is of slightly bigger diameter providing sealing
D. Seat is not exactly spherical, but slightly tapered so that during closure the ball sits tightly on the
seat
provides perfect sealing?
A. The seat fitted is slightly smaller than the outer dimensions of the ball, thus providing interferencefit when closed
B. Either a floating seat is pressed onto trunnion supported ball by liquid pressure or floating ball is
pressed onto the seat
C. Ball is not exactly spherical and is shaped such that during closure the surface coming into contact
with seat is of slightly bigger diameter providing sealing
D. Seat is not exactly spherical, but slightly tapered so that during closure the ball sits tightly on the
seat
18.The ballast
valve of the fore peak tank is located in the duct keel andcannot be opened or
shut by remote operation. The valves of othertanks can be operated remotely
without any trouble Which of the
following will be the best practice?
A. Valve should be checked locally for troubleshooting without which it is difficult to find the exact problem
B. The actuator must be defective and should be replaced with a new one
C. The control circuit is defective and the PCB should be replaced
D. Shore assistance will be required in such cases
following will be the best practice?
A. Valve should be checked locally for troubleshooting without which it is difficult to find the exact problem
B. The actuator must be defective and should be replaced with a new one
C. The control circuit is defective and the PCB should be replaced
D. Shore assistance will be required in such cases
19.It has been
reported that Engine room bilge pump was unable to take suction from Fwd. (P)
bilge well while it taking suction efficiently from Fwd.(S) & aft bilge
wells. What could be the most probable cause?
A. There is leakage in the bilge suction pipeline somewhere between the bilge wells and bilge pump
B. The Fwd. (P) bilge well suction valve might be leaking
A. There is leakage in the bilge suction pipeline somewhere between the bilge wells and bilge pump
B. The Fwd. (P) bilge well suction valve might be leaking
C. The Fwd. (P) bilge well suction
filter cover gasket might be leaking
D. The pump needs to be overhauled
20.Which of the following is a correct point for sampling of system lube oil for on board or shore analysis?
A. Standpipes
B. Purifier outlets
C. Inlet or outlet of L. O. coolers
D. Tank drains
D. The pump needs to be overhauled
20.Which of the following is a correct point for sampling of system lube oil for on board or shore analysis?
A. Standpipes
B. Purifier outlets
C. Inlet or outlet of L. O. coolers
D. Tank drains
MEO Class 4 MEP previous asked online questions
21.After maintaining correct discharge pressure , soon ceases to
discharge water what are possible cause?
A. Pressure gauge wrong
B. Pump sucking air
C. Discharge valve throttled
D. Casing wear ring is worn
A. Pressure gauge wrong
B. Pump sucking air
C. Discharge valve throttled
D. Casing wear ring is worn
22. Which of the following V/V cannot be overhauled in place without
removing piping?
A) BallValve
A) BallValve
(B) Diaphragm valve
C) Globe valve
C) Globe valve
(D) Butterfly valve
23. Copper tubing is used in refrigerant system because
A) It has less internal resistance
B) It is cheaper compared to other materials.
C) It is easier to check leaks in copper based system
D)None of the above
24. When pressure inside a system falls below that of the vapour pressure of the liquid
Cavities r formed, cavities travelling to high pressure region collapses releasing
Considerable energy damage the metal surface which is known as
A) Cavitation
A) It has less internal resistance
B) It is cheaper compared to other materials.
C) It is easier to check leaks in copper based system
D)None of the above
24. When pressure inside a system falls below that of the vapour pressure of the liquid
Cavities r formed, cavities travelling to high pressure region collapses releasing
Considerable energy damage the metal surface which is known as
A) Cavitation
B) Erosion
C) Impingment Corrosion
C) Impingment Corrosion
D) Cavitation Erosion
25. While refloating the vessel after dry docking which of the following check should be
Carried out
A) Sounding of all double bottom tanks
B) Checking leakages in the
C) Checking leakages
D) Checking level of stern tube, header tanks
26. Pump start out motor gets overloaded or trip on overload
A) Alignment is wrong
B) Gland packing too tight
C) Worn out/damaged ball bearing
D) Cavitations exists
E) All of the above
27. Why should only approved toilet cleaning chemicals be used in
A) Unapproved chemicals can lead to corrosion in the system
B) unapproved chemicals can lead to toxic conditions in the system leading
C) To destruction of protective coatings
D) Unapproved chemicals can kill aerobic bacteria making the plant ineffective
Gases produced by use of unapproved chemicals can pose threat to the operators
28) After ofver hauling reciprocal pump the motor connections were wrongly given. Determine outcome when pump is started?
A) The direction of flow wl remain unaffected
B) the direction of flow wl b reversed
C) The pump wl get damaged because the suction valve wl block the reverse flow causing overpressure leading to pump breakdown.
D) The pump wl lose suction N there wl b no flow.
29) U R responsible for daily transfers of engine room bilges . U follow the sequences aft –fwd (P)-fwd(s) bilgewel n u hv never experienced a problem but 5/E started the transfer n first transferred forward (s) bilgewel n without any problem n u join him later u find that bilge pump is not taking suction fr f(p) n aft bilgewel n then u hv checked everything is normal. what is the cause.
A) 5th engineer made a mistake by 1st transferring the fwd (s) bilge wel, normal sequence of operation for engine room machinaries should not b disturbed.
B) fwd (s) Bilge wel suction valve is leaking
C) Bilge pump suction filter cover gasket is leaking.
D) Fwd (s) Bilgewel suction filter cover gasket is leaking.
32) The centrifugal pump r normally
A) Positive displacement type
B) Rotodynamic
C) Screw type
D)Gear type
33) Sludge pump suction pressure is going full vacuum when u start the pumptaking water of double bottom tank suction u hv checked the suction filter n found in clean condition. Taking suction fr fuel oil sludge tank does not happen. Causes of the problem.
A) Pump is not working efficiently n reqd. overhauling
B) F>O> sludge tank suction valve is leaking
C) W.O. tank D.B. tank suction pipeline has a blockage.
D) Can ???say what is the problem but definiterly the pump needs to
b opened up for overhaul
34. The difference between the discharges of a centrifugal pump n reci pump
the discharge of centrifugal pump is ----------while that if reci is ---------
A) Turbulent, Laminar
B) Intermittent continuous
C) Continuous pulsating
D) Pulaating continuous
35) Which of the foll. is a true statement
A) Aluminium will b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical
continuity with stainless steel in presence of an electrolyte.
b) Stainless steel wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with mild steel in presence of an electrolyte.
C) Copper wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with stainlesssteel in presence of an electrolyte
d) Aluminiumwl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with zinc in presence of an electrolyte.
36. Ballast pump injection filter was cleaned n the pump was lined up it wasfound that there was some leakage in the suction filter suction. The pumpstarted n the leakage started. During deblasting it was found that the pumpcould not take suction fr one of the double bottoms. The cause could be
A) Pump was drawing air fr.
B) Pump was drawing air fr suction filter
C) One of thepipelines on the suction side of the pump might be leaking
D) The filter was not cleaned properly.
25. While refloating the vessel after dry docking which of the following check should be
Carried out
A) Sounding of all double bottom tanks
B) Checking leakages in the
C) Checking leakages
D) Checking level of stern tube, header tanks
26. Pump start out motor gets overloaded or trip on overload
A) Alignment is wrong
B) Gland packing too tight
C) Worn out/damaged ball bearing
D) Cavitations exists
E) All of the above
27. Why should only approved toilet cleaning chemicals be used in
A) Unapproved chemicals can lead to corrosion in the system
B) unapproved chemicals can lead to toxic conditions in the system leading
C) To destruction of protective coatings
D) Unapproved chemicals can kill aerobic bacteria making the plant ineffective
Gases produced by use of unapproved chemicals can pose threat to the operators
28) After ofver hauling reciprocal pump the motor connections were wrongly given. Determine outcome when pump is started?
A) The direction of flow wl remain unaffected
B) the direction of flow wl b reversed
C) The pump wl get damaged because the suction valve wl block the reverse flow causing overpressure leading to pump breakdown.
D) The pump wl lose suction N there wl b no flow.
29) U R responsible for daily transfers of engine room bilges . U follow the sequences aft –fwd (P)-fwd(s) bilgewel n u hv never experienced a problem but 5/E started the transfer n first transferred forward (s) bilgewel n without any problem n u join him later u find that bilge pump is not taking suction fr f(p) n aft bilgewel n then u hv checked everything is normal. what is the cause.
A) 5th engineer made a mistake by 1st transferring the fwd (s) bilge wel, normal sequence of operation for engine room machinaries should not b disturbed.
B) fwd (s) Bilge wel suction valve is leaking
C) Bilge pump suction filter cover gasket is leaking.
D) Fwd (s) Bilgewel suction filter cover gasket is leaking.
32) The centrifugal pump r normally
A) Positive displacement type
B) Rotodynamic
C) Screw type
D)Gear type
33) Sludge pump suction pressure is going full vacuum when u start the pumptaking water of double bottom tank suction u hv checked the suction filter n found in clean condition. Taking suction fr fuel oil sludge tank does not happen. Causes of the problem.
A) Pump is not working efficiently n reqd. overhauling
B) F>O> sludge tank suction valve is leaking
C) W.O. tank D.B. tank suction pipeline has a blockage.
D) Can ???say what is the problem but definiterly the pump needs to
b opened up for overhaul
34. The difference between the discharges of a centrifugal pump n reci pump
the discharge of centrifugal pump is ----------while that if reci is ---------
A) Turbulent, Laminar
B) Intermittent continuous
C) Continuous pulsating
D) Pulaating continuous
35) Which of the foll. is a true statement
A) Aluminium will b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical
continuity with stainless steel in presence of an electrolyte.
b) Stainless steel wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with mild steel in presence of an electrolyte.
C) Copper wl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with stainlesssteel in presence of an electrolyte
d) Aluminiumwl b subject to preferential corrosion when in electrical continuity with zinc in presence of an electrolyte.
36. Ballast pump injection filter was cleaned n the pump was lined up it wasfound that there was some leakage in the suction filter suction. The pumpstarted n the leakage started. During deblasting it was found that the pumpcould not take suction fr one of the double bottoms. The cause could be
A) Pump was drawing air fr.
B) Pump was drawing air fr suction filter
C) One of thepipelines on the suction side of the pump might be leaking
D) The filter was not cleaned properly.
37. The most imp. control measure to prevent boiler tube failure is
A) Use of proper refractory mtrl.
B) Proper maintenance of fuel burning equipment
C) Proper maintenance of boiler water condition
D) All of the above
38. When one of the M/E.F.O. heater is not in use then
A) The F.O. inlet n outlet valve should b kept shut, but steam heating valves should b kept crack open so as to keep the heater warm.
B) F.O. inlet n outlet valve should b kept shut n heating valves also should b completely shut n should b drained of any remaining F.O.
c) F.O. inlet n outlet valve should b kept crack open so that the F.O. recirculation can take place.
d) F.O. inlet n outlet valve should b kept shut while outlet valve should be left open so that
39. The gland packing of centrifugal pump should hv
A) not allow any breakage under the suction pressure.
B) Should only allow drop by drop continuous leakage under positive suction pressure.
C) Should allow considerable leakage
40. Corrosion of mild steel can b effectively prevented by
A) Cathodic protection
B) Protective coatings
C) Addition of suitable alloying elements
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